Or a Protestant might say, If it is true that the Magisterium is needed for you to properly interpret the Scriptures, then why has it not given an infallible interpretation of every verse?Share
Such a question in fact begs the question, in that it assumes sola scriptura without proving it. The person who asks seems to think the only purpose of an infallible Magisterium, if such a thing exists, is to give the definitive interpretation of Scripture. Once it has done that, it has no further purpose and may recede and leave Christians to the Bible alone.
But that is not the purpose of the Magisterium. Its purpose is to maintain the integrity and unity of the faith, and to keep Christians united in one body. That does not require it to interpret all 31,000-plus verses of Scripture. In a few cases it does do so, as with Matthew 16:18. Or it tells us that the woman clothed with the sun (Revelation 12:1) is Mary. But its real purpose is to define faith and morals such that the unity of the Church is preserved. To that end, it need not bind scriptural exegesis in tight chains; it need only keep it within certain bounds. It tells us not how Scripture must be interpreted so much as how it may not be interpreted. You may not interpret Romans 3:28 to deny the necessity of works in salvation. That is the difference: A Catholic drives within the lanes; a Protestant is on a road without lanes, getting into wrecks. (Read more.)
The Mystical Doctor
1 week ago
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